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1. Physics 12 chapter-wise Test

2. Chemistry 12 chapter-wise Test

3. Biology 12 chapter-wise Test

4. English 12 chapter-wise Test

5. Mathematics 12 chapter-wise Test

6. Physics 11 chapter-wise Test

7. Chemistry 11 chapter-wise Test

8. Biology 11 chapter-wise Test

9. English 11 chapter-wise Test

10. Mathematics 11 chapter-wise Test

11. Physics 10 chapter-wise Test

12. Chemistry 10 chapter-wise Test

13. Biology 10 chapter-wise Test

14. English 10 chapter-wise Test

15. Mathematics 10 chapter-wise Test

16. Physics 9 chapter-wise Test

17. Chemistry 9 chapter-wise Test

18. Biology 9 chapter-wise Test

19. English 9 chapter-wise Test

20. Mathematics 9 chapter-wise Test

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2nd year physics chapter wise test

2nd year physics chapter wise test

2nd year physics chapter wise test session is available on this website. Teachers and holders of an AQ Academy can give you the opportunity to download a chapter of Physics class 12 for a test session. 2nd year Physics test chapter no. 12 to chapter no. 22 is here but here I will provide you the FSC part 2 Physics test chapter for free. I will provide you Online test facility totally free of different subjects.

2nd year physics chapter wise test

Chapter No 12 

2nd year physics chapter wise test                                   AQ Academy

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. Total flux through a closed surface depends on:

(A) Shape of surface (B) Charge enclosed only (C) Medium only (D) Charge and Medium

ii. Electric flux does not depend upon:

(A) Medium (B) Shape of a closed surface

(C) Charge enclosed (D) Medium and charge enclosed

iii. A particle carrying a charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3 V. The energy acquired by it is:

(A) 9.6 × 10 J -18 (B) 9.6 × 10 J -19 (C) 1.6 × 10 J -19 (D) 9.6 × 10 J -17

iv. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to that point in an electric field is called:

(A) Potential (B) Potential difference (C) Absolute potential (D) All of these

v. A charge of 10 C between two parallel plates 1 cm apart experiences a force of 10 N: -10 -5

(A) 10 V (B) 102V (C) 103V (D) 104V

vi. Charge carriers in electrolytes are:

(A) Protons (B) Electrons(C) Holes (D) Positive and Negative ions

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Describe five/four properties of electric field lines.
  2. Define electric potential difference with the unit.

iii. Do electrons tend to go to regions of high potential or of low potential?

  1. What is the difference between electric and gravitational force?
  2. Define the unit of Capacitance gives its units.
  3. How can you identify which plate of a capacitor is negatively charged?

vii. Define dielectric constant give its mathematical form.

viii. What is the time constant?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) Describe Millikan’s method to find the charge on an electron.

(b) The time constant of a series RC circuit is t = RC. Verify that an ohm time farad is equivalent to a second.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (D) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (C) Q:6 (D)

Chapter No 13 

2nd year physics chapter wise test                               AQ Academy 

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. Specific resistance of a material depends upon:

(A) Length (B) Area (C) Temperature (D) Both A & B

ii. mho-m is the unit of -1

(A) Resistance (B) Resistivity (C) Conductance (D) Conductivity

iii. Temperature coefficient of resistance (α) is equal:

(A) Rt+RoR Δt o(B) Ro−RtR Δt o(C) Rt−RoR Δt o(D) None of these

iv. Resistance tolerance for gold colour is:

(A) 50% (B) 30% (C) 20% (D) 5%

v. In carbon resistors, which colour band indicates the tolerance of ±10%?

(A) White (B) Silver (C) Gold (D) Violet

vi. Potentiometer is used to:

(A) Compare emf of two cells (B) Detect internal resistance of cells

(C) Measure potential difference (D) All of these

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. A wire of length 10 m has a resistance of 100 Ω. If the wire is stretched to increase its length three times what will be its new resistance.
  2. Differentiate between resistance and resistivity, their units.

iii. Define Tolerance, give an example.

  1. Give colour code of carbon resistor.
  2. What is meant by the tolerance? Find the resistance of the resistor with colors Red-violet-orange-silver.
  3. How is rheostat used as potential divider?

vii. What areThermistor?

viii. Is the filament resistance lower or higher in a 500W 220V light bulb than in 100W 220V bulb?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a)What is wheat stone bridge? Give its principle, construction, and working. How can it be used to find unknown resistance of a write?

(b) The resistance of an iron wire at is 0°C. What is the resistance at 500 °C if temperature. Coefficient of resistance of iron 5.2 x 10-4 K-1.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (D) Q:2 (D) Q:3 (C) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (D)

Chapter No 14

2nd year physics chapter wise test                              AQ Academy 

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i The force on current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field is expressed by:

(A) F = I .LB (B) F = I ×LB (C) F = ×I2 LB (D) F = I ×BL

ii The value of permeability of free space in SI unit is:

(A) 4π × 10-9 Wb A -1m-1                         (B) 4π × 10-7 Wb A-1 m-1

(C) 4π × 10-10  Wb A-1 m-1                      (D) 4π × 107 Wb A 1m1

iii The field inside a solenoid is given by:

(A) μonI (B) μon I2 (C) μon2I(D) μoNI

iv When a charged particle is projected opposite to the direction of magnetic field, it experiences a force equal to:

(A) qvB cos θ (B) qvB sin 90°(C) qvB (D) zero

v The e/m of a neutron is:

(A) less than electron (B) zero (C) greater than election (D) the same as electron

vi The value of e/m is smallest for:

(A) Proton (B) Electron (C) β − particle (D) Positron

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Describe the change in magnetic field inside a solenoid carrying a steady current I if length of solenoid is doubled but number of turns remains the same.
  2. Write two uses of CRO.

iii. How brightness on screen of CRO can be controlled?

  1. What is C.R.O? Also give its two uses.
  2. How can you explain the wave form of various voltages formed in CRO?
  3. What is the function of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ plates in C.R.O?

vii. Is it possible to orient a current loop in a uniform magnetic field such that the loop will not tend to rotate?

viii. Define right hand rule for determining the direction of the magnetic field.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) How e/m of an electron can be determined? Explain.

(b) A 20.0 cm wire charging a current of 10.0 A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.30 T. If the wire makes an angle of 40° with the direction of magnetic field. Find the magnitude of the force acting on the wire. 

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (B) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (A) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (A)

Chapter No 15

2nd year physics chapter wise test                                AQ Academy 

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i A metal rod of 1m is moving at a speed of 1ms -1 in a direction making an angle 30° with 0.5 T magnetic field. The emf produced is:

 (A) 0.25 N (B) 2.5 N (C) 0.25 V (D) 2.5 V

ii The negative sign with induced emf in Faraday’s law is in accordance is in:

(A) Lenz’s law (B) Amperes law (C) Gauss law (D) Boyle’s law

iii Lenz’s Law deals with:

(A) Magnitude of emf (B) Direction of emf

(C) Direction of induced current (D) Resistance

iv Energy density in inductor is given by:

(A) ½ B/μo   (B) ½ B/μo2        (C) ½ B2 /μo         (D) ½ B2 /μo2

v Which one of the following is not present in an A.C generator?

(A) Armature (B) Magnet (C) Slip rings (D) Commutator

vi The principle of an electric generator is based upon:

(A) Ampere’s law (B) Faraday’s law (C) Coulomb’s law (D) Kirchhoff’s law

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Name four methods to produce induce emf.
  2. Is it possible to change both the area of the loop and the magnetic field passing through the loop and still not have induced emf in the loop?

iii. Does the induced emf always act to decrease the magnetic flux through a circuit?

  1. In a certain region the earth’s magnetic field point vertically down, when a plane flies due to north, which wingtip is positively charged?
  2. A square loop of wire is moving through a uniform magnetic field. The normal to the loop is oriented parallel to the magnetic field. Is an emf induced in the loop? Give a reason for your answer.
  3. A suspended magnet is oscillating freely in a horizontal plane. The oscillations are strongly damped when a metal plate is placed under the magnet. Explain why this occurs?

vii. On which factors the mutual inductance of the two coils depends?

viii. How would you position a flat loop of wire in a changing magnetic field so that there is no emf induced in the loop?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) Derive the formula for energy stored in an inductor. Also define inductor.

(b) A solenoid has 250 turns and its self inductance is 2.4 m H. What is the flux through each turn when the current is 2A? what is induced emf when the current changes at the rate of 20As-1

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (C) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (D) Q:6 (B)

Chapter No 16

2nd year physics chapter wise test                                AQ Academy   

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i In case of capacitor the unit of reactance is:

(A) Ohm (B) Mho (C) Farad (D) Henry

ii The combined effect of resistance and reactance is knows as:

(A) Inductance (B) Conductance (C) Resistance (D) Impedance

iii In R-L series circuit phase angle is given by:

(A) θ = tan−1 1ωLR(B) θ = tan−1ωLR (C) θ = tan−1 RωL(D) θ = tan−1 ωLR

iv The expression P = VI holds only when current and voltage are:

(A) In phase (B) Out of phase(C) At right angle to each other (D) At angle of 120o

v At resonance frequency, the impedance of RLC series circuit is:

(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) Infinite

vi In RLC series circuit, the condition for resonance is:

(A) XL < XC (B) XL > XC (C) Z > XC (D) XL = XC

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Define peak value and peak to peak value of A.C voltage?
  2. What is the main reason for the worldwide use of A.C?

iii. What do you mean by phase lag and phase lead?

  1. Which quantity, voltage or current leads in a capacitor and by how much angle?
  2. A 100 μF capacitor is connected to an alternating voltage of 24 V and frequency 50 Hz. Calculate the currentin the circuit.
  3. What is meant by inductive and capacitive reactance.

vii. How power is calculated in an A.C circuit? Write its formula.

viii. Write down two advantages of the phase A.C supply.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) What is R-C series circuit? Find the impedance of R-C series circuit.

(b) An A.C voltmeter reads 250 V. What is its peak and instantaneous values if the frequency of alternating voltage is 50 Hz?

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (D) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (D)

Chapter No 17

2nd year physics chapter wise test                              AQ Academy 

i. Example of a ductile substance is:

(A) Glass (B) Wood (C) Lead (D) Oxygen

ii. The Young’s Modulus of Mercury is:

(A) 70 × 109Nm-2 (B) 15 × 109Nm-2 (C) Zero (D) 91 × 109Nm-2

iii. Conductors have conductivities of the order of:

(A) 103 (Ωm)−1(B) 107 (Ωm)−1(C) 105 (Ωm)−1(D) 109 (Ωm)−1

iv Which type of impurity is to be added to a pure semiconductor crystal to provide holes?

(A) Monovalent (B) Trivalent (C) Tetravalent (D) Pentavalent

v In p-type substances, the minority carriers are:

(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Holes (D) Neutrons

vi A solid having regular arrangement of molecules throughout its structure is called:

(A) Amorphous solid (B) Polymeric solid (C) Glassy solid (D) Crystalline solid

Q.2 Write short answers of the  following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. What is difference in elasticity and plasticity?
  2. Define ultimate tensile strength (UTS) and fracture stress.

iii. Define modulus of elasticity. Show that unit of modulus of elasticity and stress are same.

  1. What are ductile materials, Give its two examples.
  2. Which is more elastic, steel or rubber? Why?
  3. Differentiate between insulators and conductors.

vii. Define the curie temperature.

viii. Where are squids? Explain.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) What is meant of strain energy? How can it be determined from the force extension graph?

(b) A cylindrical copper wire and a cylindrical steel wire each of length 1.5 m and diameter 2.0 mm are joined at one end to form a composite wire 3.0 m l ong. The wire is loaded until its length becomes 3.003 m. Calculate the strain in copper and steel wires and the force applied to the wire. (Young’s modulus of copper is 1.2 × 10 Pa and for steel is ). 11 2.0 × 10 Pa11.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (C) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (B) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (D)

Chapter No 18

2nd year physics chapter wise test                                AQ Academy

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i When a PN-junction is reverse biased the depletion region is:

(A) Widened (B) Narrowed (C) Normal (D) None of these

ii Photovoltaic cell is formed from:

(A) Arsenic (B) Carbon (C) Germanium (D) Silicon

iii Which component of the transistor has greater contraction of impurity:

(A) Base (B) Emitter (C) Collector (D) Emitter and collector

iv For non-inverting amplifier if R1 = ∞Ω, R2 = 0 Ω then gain of amplifier is:

(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) +1 (D) Infinite

v LDR becomes necessary when op-amp is used as a:

(A) Night switch (B) Inverter (C) Rectifier (D) Comparator

vi In a comparator circuit, when the intensity of light decreases, the resistance of LDR:

(A) RL increases (B) RL decreases (C) VR decreases (D) V_ increases

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Define depletion region and potential barrier.
  2. What is a potential barrier in a p-n junction?

iii. What is the role of a potential barrier in a diode. How is it formed in a diode?

  1. How does the current flow in forward and reverse biased diode?
  2. What is the biasing requirement of the junction of a transistor for its normal operation?
  3. Write some important uses of an operational amplifier.

vii. Write briefly about the operational amplifier.

viii. What is the principle of the virtual ground? Write the gain of inverting amplifier.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) What is meant by rectification explain full-wave rectification by a bridge rectifier. What is the use of a filter circuit?

(b) What is an operational amplifier? Discuss the action of op. amp as inverting and non-inverting amplifiers. Also, calculate voltage gain in each case.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (C) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (D) Q:6 (A)

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Chapter No 19

2nd year physics chapter wise test                               AQ Academy 

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i The dimensions of Plank’s constant are the same as that of:

(A) Energy (B) Power (C) Acceleration (D) Angular momentum

ii Joule-second is the unit of:

(A) Energy (B) Wein’s constant (C) Planck’s constant (D) Boyle’s law

iii The energy of a photon is given by:

(A) mv2 /2    (B) hf    (C) Vo e    (D) mo c2

iv Potassium cathodes in photocell emit electrons for a light:

(A) Visible (B) Infra-red (C) Ultra-violet (D) X-rays

v Light of 4.5 eV is incident on a Cesium surface and stopping potential is 0.25 eV, maximum K.E. of emitted electrons is:

(A) 4.5 eV (B) 4.25 eV (C) 4.75 eV (D) 0.25 eV

vi Compton wavelength is:

(A) h/mₒc2     (B) hc/mₒ    (C) h/mₒc  (D) hc/mₒλ

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. What happens to total radiation from a black body if its absolute temperature is doubled?
  2. What is stopping potential?

iii. Write the equation of pair production.

  1. When light shines on a surface, is momentum transferred to the metal surface?
  2. What is wave-particle duality? Give its one practical use?
  3. Is it possible to create a single electron from energy? Explain.

vii. If the following particles have same energy which has the shortest wavelength alpha particle or neutron.

viii. State uncertainty principle. Give its two mathematical forms.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) Write a note on the Compton effect.

(b) An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 50 V to calculate its de Broglie’s wavelength.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (D) Q:2 (C) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (C)

Chapter No 20

2nd year physics chapter wise test                                AQ Academy

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i The energy of the 4th orbit in a hydrogen atom is: 

(A) -2.1 eV (B) -3.50 eV (C) -13.60 eV (D) -0.85 eV

ii The energy of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV, then its energy in the fourth orbit is:

(A) -3.4 eV (B) -0.85 eV (C) -54.4 eV (D) -13.6 eV

iii An electron in H-atom is excited from ground state n=4. How many spectral lines are possible in this case?

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

iv Production of X-rays is reverse process of:

(A) Photo-electric effect (B) Compton effect (C) Annihilation (D) Pair production

v Laser can be made by creating:

(A) Meta stable (B) Population inversion (C) Excited state (D) All of these

vi For Holography we use:

(A) X-rays (B) Laser (C) γ − rays (D) β − rays

Q.2 Write short answers to the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. Can an electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom absorb a photon of energy 13.6 EV or greater them 13.6 EV?
  2. Define characteristic X-rays and continuous X-rays.

iii. What is meant by stimulated emission?

  1. Distinguish between stimulated emission and spontaneous emission.
  2. Define population inversion and metastable state.
  3. What is meant by population inversion and lasing action?

vii. Give any two uses of laser in medicine.

viii. What is meant by population inversion? Explain.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) Electrons in an X-ray tube are accelerated through a potential difference of 3000 V. If these electrons were slowed down in a target. What will be the minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced?

(b) Find the speed of the electron in the first Bohr orbit.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (D) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (A) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (D) Q:6 (B)

Chapter No 21

2nd year physics chapter wise test                               AQ Academy

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i Which of the following is similar to an electron?

(A) β − particle (B) α − particle (C) Neutron (D) Proton

ii The force which is responsible for the breaking up of the radioactive element is:

(A) Weak nuclear force (B) Strongnuclear force (C) Electromagnegtic force (D) Gravitational force

iii Half life of Uranium-239 is:

(A) 26.5 minutes (B) 24.5 minutes (C) 25.5 minutes (D) 23.5 minutes

iv Relation for half life of any radioactive element is:

(A) T 1 = λ(0.693)2(B) λ = T 1 (0.693)2(C) T 1 =20.693λ(D) T 1 =2λ0.693

v α − particle carries a charge:   (A) -e (B) +2e (C) -2e (D) No charge

vi In the reaction X + O He, X is: 178 →42    (A) 11H (B) 21H (C) e01(D) e0−1

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

  1. What are the reasons of unstablity of heavy nuclei?
  2. In, U23692 find (a) Atomic number (b) Charge Number (c) Number of Neutrons (d) Number of Electrons.

 iii. What is radioactive decay? Give an example.

  1. Describe a brief account of the interaction of various types of radiation with the matter.
  2. Explain how α and β particles may ionize an atom without directly hitting electrons. What is the difference in the atom of the two ionization? 
  3. What are the uses of nuclear reactors?

vii. Explain the working of control rods in a nuclear reactor.

 viii. What are baryons and mesons? How they are formed?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (5+3=8)

3(a) Describe the principle construction and uses of G.M Counter for detecting nuclear radiations.

(b) Radiation from a point source obeys inverse square law. If the count rate at a distance of 1.0 m from the Geiger counter is 360 counts per minute. What will be its count rate at 3.0 m from the source?

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (A)

2nd year physics chapter wise test                 AQ Academy

2- Write short answers to any EIGHT (8) of the following questions. (8×2=16)

(i)Define Coulomb’s Law and write its mathematical formula?

 (ii)Mention two situations of vector area in electric flux. 

 (iii)Is E necessarily zero inside a charge. Rubber if a balloon is spherical? Assume that charge is distributed uniformly over the surface? Explain.     

(iv)What is the difference between electric potential energy and electric potential difference?         (v)Comment on the electric field in the region of constant potential. 

(vi)How sharks locate their prey. Explain briefly.        

(vii)Write two similarities and dissimilarities between electric force and gravitational force? 

(viii)What is the time constant?       

(ix)What is Thermistor? Describe its main uses. 

(x)State Ampere’s law and write it in mathematical form.         

 (xi)Is it possible to orient a current loop in a uniform magnetic field such that the loop will not tend to rotate?        

(xii)Define AVO meter and Ohm meter.

3- Write short answers to any EIGHT (8) of the following questions. (8×2=16)

(i)What is the effect of medium between the charges upon coulomb’s force? Explain.     

(ii)Is it true that gauss’s law states that the total number of lines of forces crossing any closed surface in the outward direction is proportional to the net positive charge enclosed within the surface?        

(iii)What is meant by EEG and ERG?

 (iv)Differentiate between electrical potential difference and electric potential at a point.        

(v)A particle carrying a charge of 5e falls through a potential difference of 10.0 V. What will be the energy acquired by it.    

(vi)Define the unit of Capacitance and give its units.

 (vii)How can you identify which plate of a capacitor is negatively charged?      

(viii)Draw a graph between (q-t) for charging and discharging of a capacitor in the case of an R-C circuit.     

 (ix)Give colour code of carbon resistor. 

(x)Name the main part of CRO.

 (xi)Draw saw tooth voltage waveform and describe it.    

(xii)What should be the orientation of the current-carrying loop in a magnetic field so that torque acting upon it is a) Maximum  b) Minimum.

4- Write short answers to any SIX (6) of the following questions. (6×2=12)

(i)Describe five/four properties of electric field lines. 

(ii)Define the capacitance of the capacitor and write its formula.   

(iii)How is rheostat used as a potential divider?   

(iv)Write down the rules for finding the potential changes along a circuit.   

(v)Define magnetic flux and its unit.     

(vi)A plane conducting loop is located in a uniform magnetic field that is directed along the x-axis. For what orientation of loop is flux, a maximum. For what orientation is flux a minimum?     

(vii)Give dimensions of permeability of free space μo?  

(viii)Suppose that a charge “q” is moving in a uniform magnetic field with a velocity V. Why is there no work done by the magnetic force that acts on the charge “q”.  

(ix)How brightness on-screen of CRO can be controlled?

(SECTION-II)

NOTE: Attempt any THREE (3) questions. (3×8=24)

5.(a) What is a capacitor? Show that energy density for a capacitor that has electrical field strength E is given by  1/2 εrεoE2?

(b) Determine the electric field at the position r = (4i + 3j) caused by a point charge q=5.0×10-6 C placed at the origin.  

6.(a) What is electric potential? Find electric potential at a point due to a point charge

(b) A 20.0 cm wire charging a current of 10.0 A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.30 T. If the wire makes an angle of 40° with the direction of the magnetic field. Find the magnitude of the force acting on the wire. 

7. (a) State coulomb’s law. Explain its mathematical and vector form.

(b) The resistance of an iron wire at 0 °C is 1 × 10 -4 Ω. What is the resistance at 5000 °C if temperature. Coefficient of resistance of iron 5.2 × 10 -3K-1.

8. (a) State coulomb’s law for electrostatic force. Discuss its vector form and show that F12 = − F21.

 (b) Define electric potential. Derive the expression for electric potential at a certain point due to a point charge.

9. (a) Define electric flux. Find electric flux through a closed surface when a point charge is placed at its center.

(b) Using zero reference point at infinity, determine the amount by which a point charge of 4.0 x 10 -8 C alters the electric potential at a point 1.2 m away, when. i) Charge is positive ii) Charge is negative

Important Short Questions Of 10th Physics 2022

2nd year English papers

2nd year English papers

2nd year English papers

The new paper session of English is available on this website. Teachers and holders of an AQ Academy can provide students to easily download the test series of English class 12 for excellent exam preparation. The whole syllabus test papers are here and I will provide you Online test facility totally free of different subjects.

2nd year English papers no 1

T- Marks – 30                           Subject: English                 Time: 45 

M T- Marks – 40                        Objective Type                 AQ ACADEMY 

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The stars are immense balls of fire.
aTinybHugecVariousdSimilar
  1. These Millions of stars are wandering in space.
aMoving bShinning cDissolvingdDeclining 
  1. The universe is entirely frightening.
aDelightfulbPleasantly cMinutely dFully
  1. A star seldom finds another anywhere.
aOftenbFrequently cQuickly dSometimes 
  1. A few stars from the group which journey in company.
aHarmonybSeparationcLonelinessdGroup
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. What are planets and how did they come into existence?
  2. Write a note on the beginning of life on earth.
  3. What did Chip’s doctor say about Chips?
  4. What kind of fellow was Mr. Wetherby?
  5. When did Chips retire and what was presented to him on the day of his retirement?
Q # 3Idioms5 X 1 = 5
  1. After All
  2. Aladdin’s Lamp
  3. Behind the scene
  4. A Busy Bee
  5. Broken Health
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

A Visit to a Historical Place.

2nd year English papers NO 2

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                       Objective Type            AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The boy himself can eradicate his nervous habits.
aComposebHatecPraisedEnd
  1. He finally wins in such controversy.
aAgreement bMerry Making cDisputedLuxury 
  1. The student must possess physical vigour.
aStrengthbFatnesscWeaknessdFlaw
  1. The college gives scholarships to alleviate this gave situation.
aLocalbLightencEngrossdDefile 
  1. A few lazy buffers also drift into college.
aBoosters bSurecEfficient dCapable
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. How does a mistaken ambition on the part of boys and their parents lead to the failure of the boys?
  2. What place would you accord to sportsmen in colleges?
  3. What did Mrs. Wickett do at Brookfield?
  4. What kind of books did Chips read?
  5. How did Mr. Chips spend his holidays in spring 1896?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Beat somebody black and blue
  2. To the bitter end
  3. Briefly speaking 
  4. By all means 
  5. By word of mouth
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

POLLUTION

2nd year English papers NO 3

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                        Objective Type           AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. People sent some odd things to the troops.
aFunnybBeautifulcAdmirabledPrecious
  1. It is absurd to keep the printed rubbish.
aWastebPreciousness cPraisedExultation
  1. There was a cold nip in the air.
aBitebNappycNapkindNavel
  1. The writer shoed an air of rumination.
aMeditation bRemunerationcPridedMorning
  1. In my agony of decision, I left the embankment. 
aPanebPaincSanedHelp
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. Why should the bad books be destroyed?
  2. Why could the author not burn unwanted books?
  3. Did Kathrine like Chip’s profession?
  4. What kind of fellow was Mr. Chips before marriage?
  5. How did Katherine help chip’s in the matter of discipline?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Come to grief 
  2. Cry wolf 
  3. Cut something short 
  4. Cross your fingers 
  5. Come into one’s own
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

Why I love Pakistan

2nd year English papers NO 4

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                      Objective Type             AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The manager was a grave, calm man.
aBald bRashcSeriousdIdiot 
  1. The writer’s voice sounded sepulchral
aDismalbRingingcLouddChirpy
  1. The writer was reckless with misery?
aQuiet bTalkativecThoughtlessdSlow
  1. The writer held his money in a crumpled ball.
aFolded bFootballcBasketballdVolleyball
  1. The writer’s face was ghastly pale.
aLovely bBrightlycConstantlydHorribly
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. What other blunders did Leacock commit after leaving the manager’s office?
  2. Why did the manager come to think that Leacock had an awful secret to reveal?
  3. How did Katherine urge Chips to forgive the students?
  4. Who was Ogilvle?
  5. What was the April foolery Chips faced?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Day after day
  2. Draw a blank 
  3. Day in, Day out
  4. Do the trick 
  5. Be driven
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

Corona Pandemic in Pakistan

2nd year English papers NO 5

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                      Objective Type             AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. Chips kept up hospitality in his room.
aReading bKnowledgecGenerositydSlowness
  1. In old age, chips faculties remained unimpaired.
aHarmfulbDefective cBroken dUndamaged 
  1. Chips smell capital was inverted in gilt-edged stocks.
aDangerous bRiskycInsecure dSafe
  1. Chip’s capital did not suffer when the slump set in.
aStrikebIncrease cVisitsdLove
  1. Chips had earned the reputation of being a great jester.
aHerobComediancPrincipledTeacher
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. Why did Linford come to see Chips?
  2. Who was LinFord?
  3. Describe Chip’s last meeting with Linford.
  4. Who said good bye to Chips before his death?
  5. How was Linford received by Chips? 
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Off day 
  2. On all hands 
  3. On occasion 
  4. On the alert
  5. Out of the woods 
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

Drug Addiction

English paper NO 6

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                      Objective Type             AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The early hunter suffered from starvation in winter.
aLavishnessbLuxurycOpulence dHunger
  1. During the famine, corn and food are scare.
aAbundant bBounteouscIn plenty dShort 
  1. Arthur hop craft visited a nutrition Centre in Kenya?
aNourishment bPleasure dome cOarisdHaven
  1. The disease yaws made blotches on the human body.
aThorns bHorns cDresses dSpots 
  1. The corn could not be distributed to the isolated areas.
aAt hand bRemotecProsperousdWell-off 
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. How do famines occur?
  2. Describe some great famines of the past?
  3. What did Chips recount about nylon?
  4. What did Chips remember about Halsbury?
  5. Who was Mr. Jones and what was his duty?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Eagle-eyed 
  2. At the end of the day 
  3. Eat one’s cake and have it 
  4. Be out of one’s element 
  5. Be equal to the occasion 
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

My Aim in life

English paper NO 7

T- Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                      Objective Type             AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The examiners were partial to Latin and mathematics 
aImpartialbNeutralcLikeddDetached 
  1. The merciful ushers collected the paper of the writer.
aInstructors bTeachers cArtists dAttendants 
  1. The learned English parsing thoroughly.
aGrammatical DescriptionbTraditionscFolk love dMyths
  1. I learned English thoroughly.
aCompletely bShortlycSlowlydReally
  1. The writer owes a great debt to his teacher.
aGratefulness bGratecArrearsdSalary
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. How did the knowledge of English stand Churchill in good stead after years?
  2. Why could Churchill not do well in examinations?
  3. Why did Ralston dislike Chips?
  4. What was the reaction of the masters to the row between Ralston and Chips?
  5. Who was sir John Rivers?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Fall on hard times 
  2. Fall short of 
  3. Fight to death 
  4. Find out 
  5. Follow suit
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

Advantages and disadvantages of “Cell Phone”

 English paper NO 8

Marks – 30                     Subject: English           Time: 45 – M      

T- Marks – 40                      Objective Type             AQ ACADEMY

Q#1 Encircle the Correct Option 5X1=5

  1. The pasture was born in quite humble circumstances.
aOrdinarybHumiliated cHumane dHuman
  1. In 1948, Europe was politically unheated.
aFriendly bUnitedcRebelled dDeveloped
  1. Pasture’s Father bought a small tannery.
aA place where tanning is carried onbAsylumcMental asylumdProvision store 
  1. Pasteur’s work was of tremendous value.
aGreat bTinycPetiledTeeny
  1. The substance does not alter
aExist bChange cFind dDevelop
Q # 2Short Questions 5 X 2 = 10
  1. Describe the early life of pasture?
  2. How did Pasteur discover the method of making vaccines?
  3. How did Chatteris treat Chips?
  4. What did Chips say about the captain of the School?
  5. What type of farewell was given to Mr. Chips?
Q # 3Idioms 5 X 1 = 5
  1. Be on your guard
  2. Get the better of 
  3. Get out and about 
  4. Give full/free rein to 
  5. Go out of one’s way
Q # 4Essay1 X 10 = 10

Science and Society

How to use Present Tense

How to use Present Tense

This is a grammatical tense whose main function is to identify a position or an event in the present tense. This is used for the actions that are happening now. To explain and understand present tenses, are worth imagining time as a line on which the past, present and future are based. The term is usually used in the present tense in descriptions of particular languages ​​to refer to one or more particular grammatical forms; These can have a variety of uses, not all of which necessarily relate to the this.

Present Tense
Present Tense

Present Indefinite Tense 

Urdu k fikry ma ‘ ta’ ,  ‘ti’ , ‘tay’  ata ha. Iss mai verb ki First Form Istmal hoti ha. 

Wo khat likhta ha.

Subject+Verb+Object

He Writes a letter.

Note :

If third person singular ( he, she, it, any name) comes, we use (s) or (es) after the first form of  the verb, only in it. If verbs ends with (sh, ch, SS, x and o) we use the other hand(s). 

Present continuous Tense

Urdu k fikry ma ‘ raha ha’ , ‘rahi ha’ , ‘rahy hay’ atta ha.

Wo khat likh raha ha.

Subject+Helping verb+verb/ing+object

   He       is     Writing a letter.

(is, Are , Am)

Present Perfect Tense 

Urdu k fikry mai ‘ chuka ha’ , ‘ Chuky hain’ , ‘ chuki ha’ atta ha. Iss mai verb ki 3rd form istmal hoti hai. 

Wo khat likh chuka ha.

Subject+helping verb+verb+Object 

He   has written a letter

      ( Has ,  have) 

Present Perfect Continuous 

Urdu k fikry mai ‘ raha ha ‘ , ‘ rahi ha’ , ‘rahy hain’ atta ha.  Iss mai ‘ Time ‘ ka or verb ki 1st Form istmal hoti ha.Iss mai ” Since”, OR ” For ” ka istmal hota ha.

Wo subah sy khat likh raha hai.

Subject +Helping verb+Verb+Object 

He has been writing a letter  since morning

(has been + Have been )

Important Short Questions Of 10th Physics 2022

 

Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test

Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test

Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test session is available on this website. Teachers and holders of an AQ Academy can give you opportunity to download a chapter of Biology class 12 for a test session. 2nd year Biology test chapter no. 15 to chapter no. 27 is here but here I will provide you the FSC part 2 Biology test chapter for free. I will provide youOnline test facility totally free of different subjects.

AQ Academy

CHAPTER : 15

A.Q ACADEMY

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                                               

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i Animals that do not require to adjust their internal osmotic state actively are known:

(A) Osmoregulators (B) Osmocorformers (C) Terrestrials (D) Hypertonic

ii Fresh water protozoans pump out excess water by:

(A) Contractile Vacuole (B) Food Vacuole (C) Pinocytosis (D) Phagocytosis

iii ADH affects which part of Nephron?

(A) Walls of collecting duet (B) Glamerulus (C) Walls of loop of Henle(D) Proximal convulated tubule

iv Hemodialysis means:

(A) Removing the blood (B) Clearing the blood (C) Diluting the blood (D) Storing the blood

v The hoemeostatic thermostat is present in:

(A) Pituitary (B) Hypothalamus (C) Pancreas (D) Kidney

vi In bacterial and viral infections, pathogens and leukocytes cell produce a chemical called:

(A) Pyrexia (B) Toxins (C) Afflatoxins (D) Pyrogen

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. How osmoregulation differ from excretion?

ii. Why leaves are said to be excretophores.

iii. Draw and label human Kidney.

iv. Write a short note on Kidney transplantation.

v. What are heat shock proteins?

vi. What are heterotherms? Give example.

vii. Differentiate between Shivering and Non– Shivering thermogenesis.

viii. Define panting with one example.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Discuss the nature of excretory products in different habitats.

(b) Explain working of Nephron in Human Kidney.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (B) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (A) Q:4 (B) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (D)

  

CHAPTER : 16

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                              

AQ ACADEMY          

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. The sleep movements of plants fall under the category of:

(A) Growth (B) Tactic (C) Turgor (D) Tropic

ii. Which bone provide attachment site for:

(A) Compact bone (B) Spongy bone (C) Soft bone (D) Cartilage

iii. Mature bone cells are called as:

(A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteocytes (C) Osteoclasts (D) Chondrocytes

iv. There are ______ vertebrate in the neck region of mammals.

(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 7 (D) 4

v. Joints that are held together by short fibers embedded in connective tissue:

(A) Fibrous Joints (B) Cartilaginous Joint (C) Synovial Joints (D) Hinge Joints

vi. Rickets is due to deficiency of vitamin:

(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Differentiate between Geotropism and Hydrotropism.

ii. Define Tactic Movements. Give its one type.

iii. Differentiate between photonasty and thermonasty:

iv. Give role of Skeleton in mineral homeostasis and blood cell production.

v. Define the mechanism of hydrostatic skeleton:

vi. Name the unpaired facial bones.

vii. Enlist the various facial bones.

viii. What is the effect of exercise on muscles?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q 3. (a) Give importance of skeleton.

(b) Write the major evolutionary adaptation in the lines of tetrapod.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (C)

CHAPTER : 17

AQ ACADEMY

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                                              

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. Promotes closing of Stomata under conditions of water stress:

(A) Ethene (B) Abscisic Acid (C) Gibberellins (D) Cytokinnins

ii. The hormone which inhibits root growth is:

(A) Auxins (B) Gibberellins (C) Cytokinins (D) Abscisic acid

iii. The sensation of pain is produced by:

(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Mechanoreceptors (C) Photoreceptors (D) Nociceptors

iv. In myelinated neurons, the impulse jumps from node to node and is called:

(A) Saltatory impulse (B) Nerve impulse (C) Synapse (D) Synapsis

v. The chemical waste of industry is called:

(A) Pollution (B) Effluent (C) Toxin (D) Pollutant

vi. Effective drug available for Parkinson’s disease is:

(A) Nicotine (B) GDNF (C) AZT (D) L-dopa

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Give role of 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid.

ii. What is meant by division of Labour?

iii. Give the functions of Hypothalamus.

iv. What is difference between Somatic nervous system and Autonomic nervous system?

v. What is Epilepsy?

vi. Give Role of Hypothalamus as Endocrine gland.

vii. Which hormones are secreted by Posterior lobe of pituitary gland?

viii. What is Secretin?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q 3. (a) Explain feedback mechanism. Give an example.

(b) Give general characteristics and commercial applications of Gibberellins.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (B) Q:2 (D) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (D)

CHAPTER : 18

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                             

AQ ACADEMY               

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. Type of asexual reproduction:

(A) Fertilization (B) Vernalization (C) Apomixes (D) Photoperiodism

ii. A fluid is secreted to provide liquid medium, protection and nourishment:

(A) Corpus luteum (B) Follicle (C) Sertoli (D) Ilterus

iii. Sperms are formed in:

(A) Vas deferens (B) Collecting ducts (C) Epididymis (D) Seminiferous tubules

iv. During delivery in human, the average loss of blood is:

(A) 150cm3 (B) 250cm3 (C) 350cm3 (D) 450cm3

v. When will call embryo a fetus?

(A) After 2 months (B) after 3 months (C) After 4 months (D) After 5 months

vi. Causative agent of Genital Herpes is a:

(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Protozoan

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Enlist methods of asexual reproduction.

ii. Differentiate between diploid and Haploid parthenogenesis.

iii. Differentiate between Oogenesis and Spermatogenesis.

iv. Define follicle atresia.

v. What is the role of oxytocin in labour?

vi. What are test tube babies?

vii. What is Gonorrhea?

viii. What is the cause and effect of syphilis?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Describe the human female reproductive cycle.

(b) Explain sexually transmitted disease in human.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (C) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (A)

  CHAPTER : 19

AQ ACADEMY

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test           

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. During elongation, the cell volume increase upto:

(A) 50 fold (B) 100 fold (C) 150 fold (D) 200 fold

ii. Intercalary meristems are situated at:

(A) Root Apex (B) Shoot Apex (C) Base of Internode (D) Top of Internode

iii. The removal of apex releases that Lateral buds from the apical dominance. It is called:

(A) Inhibitory effect (B) Compensatory effect (C) Apical dominance (D) Reproduction

iv. Immediately after fertilization, the egg undergoes a series of mitotic divisions called:

(A) Morulla (B) Gastrulaion (C) Cleavage (D) Blastula

v. Hatching period of chick is:

(A) 15 days (B) 18 days (C) 21 days (D) 28 days

vi. Gray equatorial cytoplasm gives rise to _______:

(A) Epidermis (B) Muscle Cells (C) Notochord & Neural tube (D) Gut

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Differentiate between growth and development.

ii. Define differentiation and Maturation.

iii. Define growth correlations.

iv. Define Apical dominance.

v. Differentiate between Inhibitory and compensatory effect.

vi. Name two layers of lateral plate of mesoderms.

vii. Write down the names of different kinds of cytoplasm with their functions.

viii. Write regeneration in invertebrate animals.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Define teratology. Discuss various types of abnormalities in development.

(b) Write a note on Neurulation in Chick Embryo.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (C) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (C) Q:6 (C)

CHAPTER : 20

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                                        AQ ACADEMY      

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. V-shaped chromosomes are called:

(A) Acrocentric (B) Telocentric (C) Metacentric (D) Submetacentric

ii. The stand which elongates towards the replication fork is:

(A) Leading (B) Lagging (C) Okazaki (D) Primer

iii. Which one of the following is initiation codon:

(A) AUG (B) GUA (C) UGA (D) GAC

iv. The genetic code for glycine is:

(A) UAG (B) GAU (C) GUA (D) GGU

v. Which of the following is a non sense codon?

(A) UGA (B) UGG (C) AUG (D) AUC

vi. This condition appears as a result of point mutation:

(A) Down Syndrome (B) Turner Syndrome (C) Klinefelter Syndrome (D) Sickel cell Anaemia

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. What is nucleosome?

ii. Name important enzymes involved in DNA replication.

iii. What is Sickel Cell Anemia?

iv. How mRNA in eukaryotic cells remain protected from nucleases and phosphatases?

v. Define Central Dogma.

vi. Write a note on three types of RNA.

vii. Give function of RNA polymerase in transcription.

viii. Define Point mutation.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a)Explain Meselson – Stahl experiment.

(b) Explain Experiment of Beadle and Tatum on Neurospora.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (C) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (A) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (D)

CHAPTER : 21

TEST: Biology 2nd Year Chapter Wise Test                                AQ ACADEMY            

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. During cell division, the nuclear division is called:

(A) Cytokinesis (B) Karyokinesis (C) Karyotype (D) Plasmolysis

ii. Which one is absent in animal cells?

(A) Spindle (B) Centriole (C) Chromatids (D) Phragmoplast

iii. Mitosis is divided into.

(A) karyokinesis (B) cytokinesis (C) interphase (D) both a and b

iv. The phase in Meiosis I which last for days, weeks or even years is:

(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene

v. Crossing over occurs during:

(A) Diplotene (B) Pachytene (C) Zygotene (D) Leptotene

vi. In which stage of Meiosis, the paired chromosomes repel each other and begin to separate:

(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Diplotene (D) Pachytene

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. What is interphase? Write the names of its substages. 

ii. What is Kinetochore?

 iii. How do karyokinesis and cytokinesis phases of cell division differ?  

iv. What are the main features of metaphase-I of meiosis?  

v. How meiosis plays its role in producing genetic variations? 

vi. Define crossing over. Give its importance.

 vii. Describe causes and symptoms of Down’s syndrome. 

 viii. Give symptoms of Turner’s syndrome.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Describe Prophase-I of meiosis in detail.

(b) How does cytokinesis occur in animals cells? In which way does it differ from that in plant cell?

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (B) Q:2 (D) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (B) Q:6 (C)

CHAPTER : 22

TEST: BIOLOGY –2nd Year                        AQ ACADEMY                        

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. When a heterozygote exceeds the phenotypic expression of both the homozygetes the phenomenon is called:

(A) over-dominance (B) incomplete dominance (C) co-dominance (D) All of these

ii. RH Blood group system is named after its:

(A) Discoverer (B) Rhesus monkey (C) A Patient (D) Rhinoceros

iii. Secretor gene Se is present on chromosome number:

(A) 11 (B) 19 (C) 21 (D) 23

iv. The gene that triggers developmental process towards maleness is:

(A) TFM (B) SRY (C) MODY (D) BOB

v. Green colour blindness is called:

(A) Deuteranopia (B) Protanopia (C) Tritanopia (D) Colour blind

vi. Which of these traits zigzags from maternal grand father through a carrier daughter to a grandson?

(A) autosomal (B) X -linked (C) Y – linked (D) X and Y linked

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Compare Monohybrids and Dihybrids.

ii. Differentiate between complete and over dominance.

iii. What is incomplete dominance?

iv. Differentiate between linkage and linkage group.

v. Write formula to calculate recombination frequeny.

vi. What do you know about protanopia and tritanopia?

vii. What is the risk of colour-blind child in family when father is colour-blind but mother is normal?

viii. How is blood pressure a multifactorial trait?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Discuss the genetics of Colour Blindness.

(b) Define Multiple Alleles. Explain it with ABO blood group system of man.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (B) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (B)

CHAPTER : 23

TEST: BIOLOGY –II Year                             AQ ACADEMY                     

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. The enzymes which are used to cut out the gene of interest are known as:

(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction Endonuclease

ii. The two different pieces of DNA joined together, is called as:

(A) Dimeric DNA (B) Chimaeric DNA (C) Trimeric DNA (D) Tetrameric DNA

iii. Eco R1 is a commoxly used:

(A) Gene (B) Restriction Enzyme (C) Bacteriophage (D) Bacteria

iv. A full set of genes of an individual is called:

(A) Genome (B) Genotype (C) Karyotype (D) Dominance

v. Persons with huntington’s disease have a unique site where a restriction enzyme cuts:

(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Lipids (D) Proteins

vi. Transgenic bacteria are produced in large vats called:

(A) transducer (B) bioreactor (C) biomultiplier (D) culter media

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. What is genetic Engineering?  

ii. Why biotechnology is important for human beings?  

iii. What is genomic library? 

 iv. Define Bioreactors.  

v. Discuss any two benefits of transgenic bacteria to promote health of plants.  

vi. What is cystic Fibrosis?    

vii. How hyper cholesterolemia can be cured by gene therapy?   

viii. Define Hybridization.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) What is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and how is it carried out to produce multiple copies of a DNA segment?

(b) For what purpose have bacteria, plants and animals been genetically altered?

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (D) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (B) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (B)

CHAPTER : 24

TEST: BIOLOGY 2nd Year                                 AQ ACADEMY              

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. The first photosynthetic organisms used ______ as source of hydrogen for reducing carbon dioxide to sugars.

(A) H2S (B) H2 (C) S (D) CO2

ii. Darwin’s origin of species was published in:

(A) 1840 (B) 1859 (C) 1865 (D) 1890

iii. Tubes that connect the middle ear with the throat in humans are called:

(A) Eustachian tube (B) Neural tube (C) Fallopian tube (D) Nephridial tube

iv. Which one is not a vestigial organ of human being?

(A) appendix (B) coccyx (C) nictitating membrane (D) eye lid

v. Level of classification between species and family is called _____.

(A) Family (B) species (C) Genus (D) order

vi. Hardy – Weinberg’s theorem describes the frequencies of genotype of non-evoluving:

(A) Family (B) Population (C) Species (D) Community

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. What are hydrothermal vents?

ii. What are hydrothermal vents?

iii. Describe the term of Biogeography.

iv. Differentiate between Homologous and Analogous organs.

v. Explain the term homology with a suitable example.

vi. How artificial selection is different from natural selection?

vii. Give the importance of population genetics in evolution.

viii. Differentiate between population and Gene pool.

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Define gene frequency. Describe factors affecting Gene frequency.

(b) Write Darwin’s theory of evolution.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (B) Q:3 (A) Q:4 (D) Q:5 (C) Q:6 (B)

CHAPTER : 25

TEST: BIOLOGY –II Year                               AQ ACADEMY                

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. The whole of the world land is called:

(A) Lithosphere (B) Ecosphere (C) Hygrosphere (D) Biosphere

ii. The basic functional unit of ecology is:

(A) Niche (B) Population (C) HygrosphereEcosystem (D) Community

iii. The bacteria in the root nodules fix nitrogen and convert it into:

(A) Nitrate (B) Nitrite (C) Amino Acid (D) Ammonia

iv. In root nodules, the organisms present are:

(A) Bacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) Algae (D) Fungi

v. The process in which microorganisms use the proteins and amino acids and release ammonia or ammonium ions is known as:

(A) Nitrification (B) Ammonification (C) Denitrification (D) Assimilation

vi. The macronutrient in biogeochemical cycle is:

(A) Iron (B) Calcium (C) Zinc (D) Iodine

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Differentiate between Ectoparasite and Endoparasite.

ii. Define parasitism. Give at least one example.

iii. What is Symbiosis? Give one example.

iv. What is Commensalism? Give example.

v. Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients.

vi. Differentiate between Nitrification and denitrification.

vii. Write name and role of nitrifying bacteria.

viii. Sketch three main steps in nitrogen cycle?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a)Explain the biotic components of ecosystem.

(b) Explain Food Web with diagram.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (C) Q:3 (C) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (C) Q:6 (B)

CHAPTER : 26

TEST: BIOLOGY –II Year                                        AQ ACADEMY        

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. In aquatic ecosystem, near shore zone is called:

(A) Littoral zone (B) Limnetic zone (C) Profundal zone (D) Benthic zone

ii. Drifting or floating microscopic organisms are called:

(A) Phytoplanktons (B) Zooplanktons (C) Planktons (D) Photons

iii. The average rainfall in temperate deciduous forest is between:

(A) 600-1500 mm (B) 650-1500 mm (C) 700-1500 mm (D) 750-1500 mm

iv. Andropogon, Stipa and Panicum are found in ecosystem called:

(A) Grass land (B) Desert (C) Tundra (D) Coniferous

v. Which one is not Desert:

(A) Thal (B) Thar (C) Sahara (D) Taiga

vi. In which type of ecosystem is the smallest fraction of nutrients present in soil:

(A) Forest (B) Savanna (C) Grass Land (D) Desert

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. Name four factors which influence life on land.

ii. Differentiate between Alpine and Boreal forests.

iii. Describe briefly human impact on grass land Ecosystem.

iv. Give productivity in sub humid tropical grass land.

v. Name predators of grassland.

vi. Differentiate between praries and savanna.

vii. Where is desert ecosystem located in Pakistan?

viii. How animals and plants conserve water in terrestrial environment?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Where is life in oceans (hydrosphere ecosystem) most abundant and why?

(b) Discuss life in fresh water Lakes.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (A) Q:2 (A) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (A) Q:5 (D) Q:6 (D)

CHAPTER : 27

TEST: BIOLOGY –II Year                                           AQ ACADEMY     

Q.1 Circle the Correct Answers. (6×1=6)

i. The upper weathered layer of earth crust is:

(A) Rock (B) Soil (C) Sandy (D) Rhizome

ii. Agriculture was started some years ago:

(A) 40,000 (B) 30,000 (C) 20,000 (D) 10,000

iii. Establishment of new forests, where no forests existed before is called:

(A) Deforestation (B) Desertification (C) Reforestation (D) Afforestation

iv. The percentage of land under cultivation is:

(A) 30% (B) 21% (C) 11% (D) 5%

v. Ozone depletion is commonly caused by:

(A) CFCs (B) CO2 (C) Smoke (D) Smog

vi. The two main causes of air pollution are industrialization and:

(A) Automobiles (B) Urbanization (C) Deforestation (D) Overgrazing

Q.2 Write short answers of the following questions. (8×2=16)

i. What are solid wastes?

ii. How exhaustible resources are different from inexhaustible resources?

iii. What are Effluents?    

 iv. Define pollutants. Name two pollutants.

v. What is stone cancer?                 

vi. Differentiate pollution from pollutant.

vii. Explain the human role for global warming.             

 viii. What is water pollution?

NOTE: Attempt the long question. (4+4=8)

Q3. (a) Write down a comprehensive note on ozone layer and ozone layer depletion.

(b) Define Pollution. Explain about the water pollution.

MCQs Ans Key

Q:1 (B) Q:2 (D) Q:3 (D) Q:4 (C) Q:5 (A) Q:6 (C)

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