1st Year Test Papers of Biology

1st Year Biology Chapter-Wise Test Session

Various Test papers for 1st-year Biology are available now. These are all here in free form. You can download it and also these are very helpful for your examination point of view. We will offer the 1st year following subjects for paper preparation: Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Mathematics, Urdu, English, Islamic Studies (C), and Pakistan Studies.

Here, 1st-year Biology chapter-wise tests are available.

A.Q ACADEMY

1^st Year Biology Chapter wise test

Chapter 1 (Test i)

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) The study of the distribution of animals in nature is called:

A) zoogeography B) biodiversity C) geography D) Wildlife

ii) The reasoning from general to specific is:

A) Inductive B) Deductive C) scientific D) Theoretical

iii) In cities exhaust of automobiles is adding ____ in the atmosphere.

A) Nitrogen B) Phosphorus C) Chromium D) Lead

iv) The branch of biology which deals with the study of the ancestral history of living organisms is called:

A) Biotechnology B) Zoogeography C) Evolution D) Heredity

v) In deductive reasoning we move from:

A) General to specific B) Specific to general C) General to general D) Specific to specific

vi) Use of living organisms, systems, or processes in manufacturing and service industries is studied by a branch called ____

A) Social biology B) Human biology C) Biotechnology D) Marine biology

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Define hypothesis.

ii) Define Environmental biology.

iii) Give four characteristics of living organisms.

iv) What is a theory? Write down important features of a good theory.

v) Differentiate between Law and Theory.

vi) Define theory and scientific law.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Explain the biological method for solving a biological problem.

4) Discuss the role of Biology in the Protection and conservation of the Environment.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) The study of tissues is called ____

A) Anatomy B) Histology C) Paleontology D) Physiology

ii) The branch of biology which deals with the study of the ancestral history of living organisms is called:

A) Biotechnology B) Zoogeography C) Evolution D) Heredity

iii) The tentative explanation of observation is called:

A) Law B) Theory C) Hypothesis D) Deduction

iv) Use of living organisms, systems, or processes in manufacturing and service industries is studied by a branch called ____

A) Social biology B) Human biology C) Biotechnology D) Marine biology

v) Embryology is the study of

A) fossils B) tissues C) development D) internal gross structure

vi) In cities exhaust of automobiles is adding ____ in the atmosphere.

A) Nitrogen B) Phosphorus C) Chromium D) Lead

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What is deductive reasoning? Give example.

ii) Define molecular biology.

iii) Differentiate between anatomy and morphology.

iv) Define the term freshwater biology and biotechnology.

v) Define Biotechnology and Microbiology.

vi) What is a theory? Write down important features of a good theory.

Give explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Explain the biological method for solving a biological problem.

4) Define the following branches of Biology.

(i) Molecular Biology (ii) Microbiology (iii) Parasitology (iv) Biotechnology

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Total weight of water in bacterial cells is:

A) 10% B) 30% C) 50% D) 70%

ii) Which is not a polysaccharide?

A) Chitin B) Cutin C) Pectin D) Dextrin

iii) Human tissues have 85% water in cells of:

A) brain B) bone C) blood D) liver

iv) ____is not a Terpenoid.

A) Rubber B) Steroids C) Terpenes D) Waxes

v) Phosphatidyl-choline is one of the common ___

A) Acylglycerol B) Phospholipid C) Terpeniod D) Wax

vi) Covalent bond between two monosaccharides is called:

A) Ionic bond B) Hydrogen bond C) Glycosidic bond D) Ester bond

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Define the transfer RNA and messenger RNA.

ii) How glycosidic bond is different from a peptide bond?

iii) What is specific heat capacity?

iv) Differentiate between amylose and amylopectin starches.

v) What is the function of ribosomal RNA?

vi) Why are fats considered as high energy compounds?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Write an essay on Lipids

4) Give the classification of proteins.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Three-dimensional globular protein is:

A) Starch B) Glucose C) Antibiotic D) Enzyme

ii) The specific heat of the vaporization of water is

A) 457 Kcal/kg B) 574 Kcal/kg C) 547 Kcal/kg D) 475 Kcal/kg

iii) Hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine are

A) Three B) four C) five D) two

iv) Human tissues have 85% water in cells of:

A) brain B) bone C) blood D) liver

v) Which one of the following is not a polysaccharide?

A) Glycogen B) Lactose C) Starch D) Dextrin

vi) RNA is synthesized and stored in

A) Nucleus B) Nucleolus C) Lysosome D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Why are fats considered high-energy compounds?

ii) Define the transfer RNA and messenger RNA.

iii) What is an ester? Express it with the equation.

iv) Draw the sketch of the ATP molecule (nucleotide).

v) Why the heat capacity of water is very high? Give its importance.

vi) What are anabolic and catabolic reactions?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Define Transcription, Explain types of RNAs.

4) What are RNAs? Explain different types of RNA.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Poisons like cyanide antibiotics, antimetabolites and some drugs are examples of:

A) Enzymes B) Inhibitors C) Coenzymes D) Holoenzymes

ii) Enzyme lowers the energy of:

A) kinetic B) potential C) activation D) ionic

iii) Poisons, like cyanide are examples of:

A) Enzymes B) Co-enzymes C) Inhibitors D) Co-factors

iv) Irreversible inhibitors form which bonds with the active site?

A) Hydrogen bonds B) Covalent bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Hydrophobic bonds

v) Enzymes involved in cellular respiration are found in

A) Cytoplasm B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Ribosome

vi) Optimum pH for enterokinase enzyme is

A) 2.00 B) 4.50 C) 5.50 D) 6.80

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What is the active site? What are its two regions?

ii) How does temperature affect Enzyme Action?

iii) State the effect of pH on the activity of an enzyme.

iv) What is Activator?

v) Give the role of pH in enzyme action. Give optimum pH values for any two enzyme actions.

vi) Write the effect of temperature on enzyme action.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Define inhibitors. Write their types

4) Describe factors affecting enzyme activity in detail.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Co-enzyme is closely related to:

A) Lipids B) Minerals C) Vitamins D) Water

ii) Lock and key model to visualize substrate and enzyme interaction was proposed by:

A) Koshland B) Emil Fischer C) Lorenz Oken D) Rudolph Virchow

iii) If nonprotein part is loosely attached to the protein part, it is known as:

A) Co-factor B) Coenzyme C) Holoenzyme D) Prosthetic group

iv) Induced fit model was proposed by ___

A) Emil Fisher B) Robert Brown C) Koshland D) Robert Koch

v) Irreversible inhibitors form which bonds with the active site?

A) Hydrogen bonds B) Covalent bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Hydrophobic bonds

vi) The enzyme with optimum pH of 5.50 is:

A) Arginase B) Sucrase C) Pepsin D) Enterokinase

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) How does an enzyme accelerate a metabolic reaction?

ii) Write down any four characteristics of Enzymes.

iii) Discuss the role of trypsin in digestion.

iv) Give the functions of the binding site and catalytic site of the active site of an enzyme.

v) What are enzyme inhibitors? Give their major types.

vi) How is the Apoenzyme different from Holoenzyme?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Describe factors affecting enzyme activity in detail.

4) Define inhibitors. Write their types

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) The resolution of the human naked eye is:

A) 1.0 mm B) 0.3 mm C) 0.6 mm D) 0.7 mm

ii) “Omnis Cellula-e-cellula” was hypothesized by:

A) Schleden B) Rudolph virchow C) Louis Pasteur D) Lortenz

iii) The resolution of the typical compound microscope is _____ micrometer

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

iv) Lysosomes were isolated and studied for the first time by _____

A) Palade B) De-Duve C) Golgi D) Virchow

v) Which is not found in the secondary wall?

A) lignin B) cutin C) pectin D)silica

vi) Germ cells of Drosophila have chromosomes:

A) 26 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What are cytoplasm and nucleoplasm?

ii) What is the resolution of the human eye and electron microscope?

iii) Is there any similarity between the cell wall of bacteria and plants?

iv) What are chromoplasts? Give their function.

v) Write down two functions of the Golgi complex.

vi) How do intermediate filaments support cells?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Give a comparison between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells.

4) Describe the structure and functions of the cell membrane.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Icosahedral virus has nearly:

A) 10 faces B) 20 faces C) 30 faces D) 40 faces

ii) Hepatitis “B” is also called

A) delta hepatitis B) infectious hepatitis C) infusion hepatitis D)serum hepatitis

iii) Major cells infected by HIV are:

A) Leukocytes B) Helper T-Lymphocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Monocyte

iv) The number of capsomeres present in the capsid of the herpes virus are

A) 162 B) 252 C) 262 D) 152

v) Binomial nomenclature system was given by:

A) Pasteur B) De Duve C) Lamarck D) Linnaeus

vi) The smallest known viruses that contain the RNA in spherical capsids are the:

A) Herpes viruses B) Influenza viruses C) Polio viruses D) Pax viruses

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) How hepatitis A is transmitted?

ii) What are capsids made up of?

iii) What are the symptoms of smallpox?

iv) Write down the biological classification of corn.

v) State the contribution of Carlous Linnaeus in biology.

vi) Write four characteristics of viruses.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Describe the lytic cycle of bacteriophage (with diagram)

4) What is hepatitis? Give its symptoms and discuss its three common types.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) When a tuft of flagella is present at each pole of two in bacteria is known as

A) atrichous B) lophotrichous C) peritrichous D) amphitrichous

ii) Which of the following is a microaerophilic bacterium?

A) Campylobacter B) Pesudomonas C) Spirochete D) E. coli

iii) Pilli are primarily involved in:

A) Movement B) Conjugation C) Nutrition D) Excretion

iv) Pili are made of a special protein called ____

A) Pillin B) Flagellin C) Tubulin D) Myosin

v) Which one of the following is aerobic bacteria:

A) Campylobacter B) E. coli C) Pseudomonas D) Spirochaete

vi) When cocci occur in pairs, their arrangement is

A) tetrad B) diplococcus C) sarcina D)streptococci

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Differentiate between Lophotrichous and Amphitrichous bacteria.

ii) What are mesosomes? Describe their function.

iii) Differentiate between photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria.

iv) What is the structure and function of heterocysts?

v) How do the cell walls of plants differ from Prokaryotes?

vi) Write down the functions of cell walls and flagella in bacteria cells.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Describe different methods to control bacteria

4) Describe different shapes of bacteria.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Which of the following is not a ciliate?

A) Paramecium B) Vorticella C) Trypanosoma D) Stentor

ii) One or more small diploid micronuclei of ciliate functions in:

A) Metabolism B) Growth C) Sexual process D) Excretion

iii) Trypanosoma is an example of:

A) Actinopods B) Zooflagellates C) Ciliates D) Apicomplexans

iv) Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic

A) cholera B) fever C) dysentery D) migraine

v) Algae which have shells composed of two halves that fit together like a petri dish belong to:

A) Brown algae B) Diatoms C) Green algae D) Red algae

vi) African sleeping sickness is caused by:

A) Trypanosoma B) Entamoeba C) Sacchroyces D) Neurospora

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Write down similarities and differences between fungi and fungus-like protists.

ii) What are Trichonymphas? Give their role.

iii) Write any two characters of diatoms.

iv) What was the reason for migration out of Ireland?

v) What is meant by a polyphyletic group of organisms?

vi) What are diatoms? Write their importance.

Give explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Discuss any four types of Algae.

4) Discuss any four types of Protozoa.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Histoplasmosis, caused by spores of the fungus, is a serious infection of:

A) Kidney B) Skin C) Lungs D) Heart

ii) Most common smut fungi (loose smut of wheat) are:

A) Ustilago B) Puccinia C) Penicillium D) Yeast

iii) A single mycelium may produce up to a kilometer of new Hyphae in only:

A) One day B) Five days C) Fifteen days D) Twenty days

iv) Which is used to inhibit fungal growth?

A) lovastatin B) cyclosporine C) griseofulvin D) ergotin

v) Which of the following is a major structural component of fungus cell well?

A) Cellulose B) Peptidoglycan C) Chitin D) Lignin

vi) The imperfect fungi are also called:

A) Basidiomycetes B) Deuteromycetes C) Ascomycetes D) Basidiospores

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What are Lichens? Give example.

ii) What is Histoplasmosis? Write its cause and effects.

iii) Define nuclear mitosis in fungi?

iv) What is meant by parasexuality, given its importance?

v) Differentiate between fragmentation and budding in fungi.

vi) What do you mean by budding and parasexuality?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) With the help of a diagram discuss the life cycle rhizopus.

4) Give general characters of Group Basidiomycota.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Prothallus is:

A) Sporophyte B) Gametophyte C) Saprophyte D) Seed

ii) All seed-producing plants are called

A) bryophytes B) pteridophytes C) tracheophytes D)spermatophytes

iii) Double fertilization is a special process found in:

A) Gymnosperm B) Angiosperm C) Bryophyte D) Algae

iv) Living genus of psilopsida is

A) cook Sonia B) psilophyton C) Horneophyton D) Psilotum

v) Microspore of seed plants (that contain micro gametophyte including gametes) is called ___

A) Seed B) Ovule C) Pollen grain D) Flower

vi) The earliest group of vascular plants is:

A) Lycopsida B) Sphenopsida C) Psilopsida D) Pteropsida

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Why Anthoceropsida is considered more advanced than other bryophytes?

ii) Differentiate between microgametophyte and megagametophyte.

iii) How do spores of mosses differ from spores of liverworts?

iv) How integument is formed?

v) Differentiate between Overtopping and Plantation.

vi) what are Gymnosperms? Give example.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Describe the differentiation between monocotyledon and dicotyledon plants (any four differences).

4) Give a detailed life cycle of adiantum and sketch it.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) An outer flexible cover of tunicates is ____

A) Tunic B) Cuticle C) Cell wall D) Pellicle

ii) Sepia belongs to:

A) Pisces B) Myriapoda C) Gastropoda D) Cephalopoda

iii) Example of tunicate is :

A) Amphioxus B) Molgula C) Amphibia D) Reptilia

iv) Nereis belong to the class:

A) Plychaeta B) Oligochaeta C) Hirudinea D) Crustacea

v) Pseudocoelom is the characteristic feature of phylum __

A) Nematoda B) Annelida C) Mollusca D) Echinodermata

vi) Some of the colonial members of cnidaria have up to five different types of zooids performing different functions for the colony e.g.:

A) Physalia B) Paramecium C) Aurelia D) Actinia

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What are gemmules?

ii) Give beneficial effects of insects.

iii) Define polymorphism. Also, give an example.

iv) Differentiate between enterocoelous and schizocoelous features.

v) What are the three basic characters of Chordates?

vi) Write down characters of phylum Annelida.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Write down different characters of birds.

4) Give the characteristic features of Amphibians.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) The final product of glycolysis is:

A) Citrate B) Pyruvate C) Malate D) Fumarate

ii) Thylakoid membranes are involved in ATP synthesis by a process known as

A) photolysis B) glycolysis C) chemiosmosis D) redox process

iii) Which wavelength of light is least absorbed by chlorophylls?

A) yellow B) violet C) blue D) orange

iv) Chlorophyll ‘a’ is:

A) yellow-green B) orange-green C) blue-green D) green-black

v) The dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs in

A) cytoplasm B) chlorophyll C) stroma D) granum

vi) The average number of chloroplasts in each mesophyll cell is ___

A) 10-100 B) 10-200 C) 20-100 D) 20-200

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What is meant by bacterio-chlorophylls?

ii) What is the Z-scheme of phosphorylation?

iii) What is an action spectrum?

iv) Define photophosphorylation.

v) Write photolysis of water in photosynthesis.

vi) What is the role of the antenna complex in photosynthesis?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Explain the “Respiratory Electron Transport Chain” with the help of a diagram (sketch)

4) What is oxidative phosphorylation? Discuss.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) An organism that lives on or in another organism is called _

A) Predator B) Pest C) Parasite D) Host

ii) The enzyme that digests carbohydrates are

A) lipase B) amylase C) pepsin D) trypsin

iii) Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are stimulated by a hormone called:

A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Zymogen D) Parietal

iv) The human stomach is situated below the ___

A) Diaphragm B) Liver C) Kidneys D) Spleen

v) If bile pigments are accumulated in Blood condition is known as:

A) Gallstone B) Jaundice C) Pyrosis D) Heart pang

vi) Hydra is an example of:

A) Tentacular feeding B) Scraping feeding C) Filter feeding D) Fluid feeding

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What are the ingredients of gastric juice?

ii) Differentiate between ingestion and egestion.

iii) Define nutrition.

iv) Enlist the steps involved in holozoic nutrition.

v) What is Ulcer?

vi) What are insectivorous plants? How do they get their carbohydrates?

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Discuss the process of absorption in the large intestine.

4) Describe parasitic and symbiotic nutrition in plants.

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) During photorespiration glycine is converted into serine in organelle

A) peroxisomes B) mitochondria C) chloroplast D) Golgi bodies

ii) The main sites of exchange of gases in plants are:

A) stomata B) lenticel C) cuticle D) epidermis

iii) The complex cartilaginous structure at the upper end of the trachea is called:

A) Larynx B) Alveoli C) Bronchiole D) Lung

iv) Hemoglobin in man increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to about ____ times

A) 75 B) 50 C) 60 D) 100

v) Pathway in which RuBP is converted into serine is called:

A) Breathing B) Photophosphorylation C) Photorespiration D) Electron transport chain

vi) The structure in the mouth that prevents food from entering the nasal cavities is the:

A) Epiglottis B) Soft palate C) Tongue D) Pharynx

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) What do you know about counter-current exchange?

ii) How hemoglobin helps in the transport of Oxygen?

iii) What do you mean to know about para bronchi and counter-current exchange?

iv) Differentiate between external and cellular respiration.

v) How respiration takes place through cork tissue?

vi) Write down the first two steps of photorespiration.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Explain the transportation of oxygen in man

4) Describe gaseous exchange in plants

Q1) Choose the most appropriate option. Cutting/overwriting is not allowed:

i) Bleeding Phenomenon is not shown by:

A) Strawberry B) Sugar maple C) Grape Wine D) Palms

ii) Guttation occurs in plants through:

A) Cuticle B) Hydathodes C) Lenticels D) Stomata

iii) The total transpiration that may take place through stomata is ______%

A) 60 to 70 B) 80 to 90 C) 1 to 2 D) 5 to 7

iv) Basophils produce a substance that inhibits blood clotting.

A) Heparin B) Platelets C) Fibrinogen D) Eosinophil

v) In male human beings the amount of red blood cells per cubic millimeter is:

A) 5 to 5 14 million B) 4 to 4.5 million C) 6 to 6.5 million D) 3 to 3.5 million

vi) Thalassemia is also called

A) Cooley’s anemia B) Thomas anemia C) Peter’s anemia D) Mendal’s anemia

Q2) Write short answers to ANY FIVE (05) of the following:

i) Define active immunity.

ii) Differentiate between source and sink.

iii) Differentiate between thrombus and embolus.

iv) Define Osmosis.

v) Give blood route in the fish circulatory system.

vi) Differentiate between single and double-circuit hearts with examples.

Give an explanatory answer to ANY ONE of the following:

3) Compare closed and open circulatory systems.

4) Describe the composition of blood plasma.

1st Year Important Short Questions (2023 Exams)